I was reading recently, something about reversible steam engines on trains. This is actually just a valve system that allows a steam engine to operate in reverse, so as to back up a train when necessary.
It got me to wondering if in the early days of the formation of thermodynamics if this "reversibility" of certain steam engines had any influence, by way of a misunderstanding or something in the development of the concept of a "reversible" heat engine.
Kelvin or somebody reading an engineering manual about reversible steam engines had an "aha!" moment.
Anyway, here is the first description I came across for a thermodynamically "reversible" engine:
http://labman.phys.utk.edu/phys221core/ ... d_law.htmlCarnot assumed that an ideal engine, converting the maximum amount of thermal energy into ordered energy, would be a frictionless engine.
It would also be a reversible engine.
By itself, heat always flows from an object of higher temperature to an object with lower temperature. A reversible engine is an engine in which the heat transfer can change direction, if the temperature of one of the objects is changed by a tiny (infinitesimal) amount.
When a reversible engine causes heat to flow into a system, it flows as the result of infinitesimally small temperature differences, or because there is an infinitesimal amount of work done on the system.
If such a process could be actually realized, it would be characterized by a continuous state of equilibrium (i.e. no pressure or temperature differentials) and would occur at a rate so slow as to require an infinite time
My first question is; is this really something that actually originated with Carnot himself?
The old fathers of thermodynamics seems to have had a habit of attributing things, like the "efficiency limit" to Carnot, though it is based on the Kelvin temperature scale which wasn't around in Carnot's day, but he somehow has to take the blame.
As a simple mechanic wanting to build the best Stirling/hot air engine possible, do I really need to know about or understand this "reversibility"?
How exactly can a heat engine, or any engine for that matter be "efficient" when quite obviously it has no chance whatsoever of operating at all with no temperature or pressure differential?