Source of quote in previous post:
https://byjus.com/question-answer/does- ... aporation/
VincentG wrote: ↑Tue Jul 04, 2023 8:41 am
An engine running without heat rejection would allow an over unity machine to be built. That violates the law of conservation of energy, and all of physics would be wrong. All...
... I don't think anyone is claiming zero heat rejection or perpetual motion, either of those would be creating energy from nothing.....
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"Nobody", IMO is basically right, speaking for myself anyway, though I don't consider myself to be advocating any particular point of view or making any "claim" I am openly researching, investigating or "looking into" in an unbiased, unprejudiced way "An engine running without heat rejection", but this is a measurable, repeatable observation of a reality not any unsupported "claim".
For example, aside from semantics or rationalizations or interpretations of the meanings and usage of words, using a thermometer and taking a measurement, no "HEAT" can be found leaving the drinking birds head, only a drop in temperature.
Under certain, not all that uncommon circumstances I've found the same thing on the "cold side" of a quite ordinary Stirling engine. No "HEAT" as such departing the scene, as evidenced by a general rise in temperature at or around the supposed point of departure where this heat "rejection" is supposedly taking place.
I don't agree with "Nobody" that this violates conservation of energy. Actually it demonstrates conservation of energy.
If heat is a form of energy it cannot be "rejected" as "waste heat" while also being converted to and going out as "work".
I don't think ALL science is wrong or should be or would be overturned, but I certainly think that the so-called Carnot Limit" as generally interpreted is a demonstrable fallacy.
The Carnot Limit does have some basis. It represents the temperature difference on the absolute scale, but that is all.
If the Carnot Limit said you can't operate a heat engine without a temperature difference or without some heat loss I would be more or less accepting of that, but that is not what it says, it says that If I use 100,000 joules of heat to boil water then only, at best, maybe 20,000 joules of that are available to run my heat engine.
I think this is a preposterous, ludicrous and unjustifiable transposition of a simple ratio (the ∆T) in a way that is not supported by any empirical evidence. It can be easily debunked by measuring the temperature of the "sink".
If there were no temperature rise, maybe we could say that the heat rejection is minute and so difficult to detect, but in actuality, like with the drinking bird, experimentally, it is sometimes possible to measure a temperature fall or "refrigeration" effect.
With the drinking bird the question of 'where did the heat go?' is fairly obvious and traceable, attributable to evaporation, and not all that controversial, but in the case of a Stirling type heat engine there is this prejudice against any efficiency of any heat conversion to work output above the arbitrary "Carnot Limit" which is not and has not been supported by any experimental evidence in the course of the past two centuries.